Sure, media monopolisation exists now (and such monopolisation can result in
de facto restraints on others' expression and indeed can result in private censorship), but legal regulation at least helps keeps otherwise-absolute power in check. In your dystopian nightmare of absolute free speech, monopolisation by the powerful would be much worse than it is now. You clearly have no answer to this. My suggested solution is greater media democratisation; not absolute free speech rights, which is just a nonsensical and delusional head-in-the-sand approach.
Personally, I have many
reservations in respect of the BBC and I think groups like
Media Lens and
FAIR do sterling work in scrutinising and exposing the distortions and propaganda of media outlets,
such as the BBC, who disingenuously profess to be impartial or liberal, but I'd be interested in hearing why you believe the BBC to be an "unregulated" propaganda channel. The BBC, whilst engaging in plenty of distortion and misrepresentation - or sometimes even
outright falsehood - in favour of a pro-Western narrative, does not enjoy absolute free speech rights. It has to adhere to (or at least give the appearance of adhering to) at least some protocols, standards and regulations.
And I think you're getting cause and effect mixed up.
De facto restraint and private censorship in this context result from monopolisation by the powerful and a lack of
de jure regulation, or a lack of checks and balances on their power, in other words. Are you saying that monopolisation results from the powerful entities' own
de facto censorship or are you saying that it results from
de jure censorship? If you're saying it arises from their own
de facto or private censorship, then you're undermining your entire argument and admitting that a lack of
de jure regulation leads to monopolisation of expression and communication by the powerful. If, on the other hand, you're saying that their monopolisation arises from
de jure censorship, can you explain how this is necessarily the case and why you believe this to be so?
But you (or Fred) are not everyone, so you can't assume everyone else would respond to the information in identical fashion. Ideally, Fred would be able to make an informed decision based on evidence over malicious rumour and falsehood. A transparent and independent court of law has a role to play here in separating the fact from the defamatory fiction. That Fred's opinion or uncertainty might be potentially influenced or sustained by defamatory lies or that such misinformation would be allowed to enable a seed of doubt to remain in Fred's mind regarding the allegations relating to Tim and Bob is not ideal. Fred may have been friendly with Tim and Bob prior to the allegations, but now he might have made a decision to cut both of them out of his life because he can't be sure which of the two is the murderer, if one was a murderer at all. That's a detrimental material effect upon at least two completely innocent people's lives there arising directly from your juvenile and ill-considered approach to free speech.
How are facts that are substantiated by clear and reliable evidence the same thing as "one sided propaganda enabled by censorship", particularly in this specific case of Fred, Tim and Bob? You're just repeating meaningless mantra now.