Euro '88 - Can someone settle an argument?

**ramondo** · 15/06/2004, 8:01 PM

There's money on this one with my cousin...

I reckon if the score in the Ireland v Russia (or was it USSR?) game in the '88 Euro championships was 1-0 to us rather than 1-1 and all other scores had remained the same, we still wouldn't have qualified for the semi-finals as Holland and Russia would have had two wins as well but with better goal difference.

My cousin thinks we would have qualified with the win against Russia despite the jammy Dutch goal.

Who's right?

**pineapple stu** · 15/06/2004, 9:00 PM

Would have had all three teams on six points (bar England, obviously). Both the other teams beat England 3-1, while we only beat then 1-0, while we'd all have recorded 1-0 wins against each other.

You win; my commission's 25%.

**ramondo** · 15/06/2004, 9:25 PM

Thanks for that, just as I thought.

So, who would have won the group? If it wasn't the Russians then it could have been completely different.

Would they have to have drawn lots?

Maybe not, each competition seems to have a set of rules as to how the group places are decided.

Does anyone know what they were for Euro '88?

**tiktok** · 15/06/2004, 9:35 PM

Originally Posted by ramondo

So, who would have won the group? If it wasn't the Russians then it could have been completely different

Imagine it would have been the russians anyway, as they defeated the Dutch in the first game

**pineapple stu** · 15/06/2004, 9:49 PM

Did that rule exist back then? If not, it would have been lots, especially as both would be through anyway.

**Metrostars** · 16/06/2004, 2:42 PM

If only were it not for the wicked Wim Keift bounce we would have drawn the Dutch 0-0 and come in second (USSR 7pts, Irl 5, Dutch 4). If that happened we could have beaten the Germans in the Semi and have Ronnie score again in the final to beat the Ruskies.

But instead we're left with that Van Basten wonder goal...