Printable View
Does anyone know how exactly this wil be worked out..I assume it's going to be points first, then goal difference and goals scored, with the results against 7th-placed teams not counting, since not all groups have 7 teams. How can this be fairly worked out!
What does anyone reckon about are chances of qualifing as one of the two. With four teams looking quite strong after four games its a bit of a doubt, but there are some strange results cropping up.........answers on a postcard....
According to the FIFA website:-Quote:
Originally Posted by onenilgameover
To determine the 2 best 2nd placed teams, the results against the teams of the same group in 1st, 3rd, 4th, 5thand 6thplace will be taken into consideration.
I reckon we will win the group so no need to worry about this!
Basically because some of the groups are uneven , the result against the bottom team in the larger groups are disregarded.
SO if we finish second all of our results will be accounted for, decided initially by points accumulated, goal difference and potentially goals scored.
I think !
:D
What about if two teams, say for example Ireland and Israel ;) were to finish joint top of our group.... is it games between the two teams and failing that overall goal difference including the bottom placed team ?
See? this is what happens when FIFA let Keyser Soze be in charge of the rulemaking dept.....
Ahahaha very funny, ooh mother.Quote:
Originally Posted by Seamuslawless
Anyway it's particular goal dif first.
Article 7.7:
Fifa Regulations
Good point Seamus. Never really thought of it that way. If we top the group jointly with another team, the results between the two teams determine who tops and who comes second. Then for the 2nd placed team it would revert to the format I mentioned earlier to determine whether they are a best 2nd placed team or not.
I think.
Damn, I knew I shouldn't have skipped article 7 when I was reading the regulations!! Ok that makes sense, thanks for clearing that up. :)
One small point, surely point C makes point D null and void ? If the two teams have the same goal difference in the matches with each other then surely they would have to have scored the same number of goals ?! .....or am I crazy, maths was never my strongest point :confused:
Yes but no. That's why God in its wisdom invented the away goal rule.Quote:
Originally Posted by Seamuslawless
If you have 0-0 and 1-1 you get the same goal dif but the away goal rule applies.
See this post
Ah ha !! I see said the blind man ;)