Does this mean FIFA still view the situation as being unfair on the IFA? Surely if FIFA genuinely thought it unfair, they'd have amended their rules accordingly. They've already redrawn the eligibility rules once since, if I'm not mistaken, and did nothing to ensure a more favourable position for the IFA.
The IFA make a few peculiar assertions.
(Page 5)
In 2006, the FAI was no longer complying with the "1950 FIFA Ruling" and the subsequent accord reached by the two associations. As a matter of fact, it was making approaches to Northern Ireland players who had no birth or residence connection with the territory of the Republic of Ireland.
Is this actually a matter of fact or are the IFA merely claiming it to be a matter of fact? Who are these players, if so, and is there proof of approaches having been made?
(Page 25)
IFA contends that as a matter of fact during the last 60 years there was a harmonious relationship between the two associations, each of which accepted that it should select players exclusively on the basis of a territorial connection and applied this approach without any variation to hundreds, if not thousands, of players.
The FAI were calling up northern-born Irish nationals such as Mark McKeever, Ger Crossley et al nearly a decade prior to 2006.
Overall, a very interesting and enlightening document. Clearly, the so-called "gentleman's aggreement" with the FAI was a figment of the IFA's imagination. From my knowledge of the relationship between the two associations, I had always expected that this was the case, but the judgment pretty much confirms it.