Originally Posted by
osarusan
You believe that if Fenlon was owed X (for an unknown amount of time), thus constituting a breach of contract, but Bohs put that X into his account, his contract is now valid again, as if no non-payments had never happened?
I doubt that myself. If somebody says they'll pay you 5,000 a week, but doesn't pay you at all for 20 weeks, then pays you 100,000, are you saying that after receiving the 100,000, an employee would have no grounds for saying contract had been breached?