Another bad aspect of the 2-2

[Poor Student]

If I think I know how the rules work in this thing should points be tied then it goes to head to head results. Which goes first on who won the most, then who scored the most, and then to away goals. So therefore having only scored 1 away goal v Israel and let in two should we be tied on points with them they will finish above us. Does this make any sense? :confused:

[thejollyrodger]

I think the way it works is if we are on level points then it goes down to goal difference. Its not who scored the most goals but who scored the most goals against each other. So Israel would be ahead of us if it came down to it.

Cant see it coming to that tbh

[Stuttgart88]

Yes it does make sense but your fears aren't warranted at this point AFAIK.

I've looked into it and there is no mention of away goals counting in the head to head calculations.

1. Outright Head to head (e.g. 4 points vs 1 point)
2. Head to head GD if each has 3 points (A beats B 1-0 at home but loses 2-0 away, B goes through).
3. If outright head to head is 1 point each or 3 points each, total group GD then counts & against ALL teams.

[concanta]

Yep kinda but as i thought and someone else posted on another thread i think it will go to overall goal difference before AWAY goals - so if we can bang in a few goals in against the faores then we can try and make up some ground on switzerland

[Stuttgart88]

See page 6 of this pdf document, Article 7, point 7 (d):

http://fifaworldcup.yahoo.com/releases/en/fwc_regulations_2006_090604_en.pdf

No mention of away goals at all.

It says that after the head to head results, and then goal difference between them (resulting from the relevant games) then total goals scored between the teams involved is the next factor.

This last bit must be irrelevant in a 2 way tie. Yes?

But the way I'm reading it it's relevant if 3 teams tie and still no one or two teams can be selected.

3 way tie example:

3 teams: A, B & C. each has already drawn against each other once (like in our group). Then:

A beats B 4-0
B beats C 2-0
C beats A 3-0

No team dominates: A wins over B, B wins over C and C wins over A. Back to square one I think.

But A has scored 4 goals, B 2 and C3. A goes through first and C in second.

Can someone else clarify my reading of this please? Any Swiss lawyers out there? :)

[wallis]

In the league system, the ranking in each group is determined as
follows:
(a) greater number of points obtained in all the group matches;
If two or more teams are equal on the basis of the above criterion,
their ranking shall be determined as follows:
(b) greater number of points obtained in the group matches
between the teams concerned;
(c) goal difference resulting from the group matches between the
teams concerned;
(d) greater number of goals scored in the group matches between
the teams concerned;
(e) goal difference in all the group matches;
League system
(f) greater number of goals scored in all the group matches;
(g) a play-off on neutral ground.

The 'away' goals for Israel dont make any difference. At the moment none of the top four have beat each other so if we were all to finish level its goal difference and a play-off. With our history we will probably have a play-off to make the play-offs !

[zinedineontour]

win four games we deffo win group. ..end of ..

[Poor Student]

Alright lads. Sorry about that. UEFA technicalities confuse me and I am unable to load their site.